SO let me see if I get this straight:

It's OK to use public money to fund education aimed at a specific belief system only if the adherents to that individual belief system are wealthy enough to partially fund the education on their own?

I guess that makes sense -- since so many conservatives love it when the governemnt gives money to the rich, and hate when they give money to people who really need it.

As for my argument being less than logical (as you so "kindly" put it) -- please feel free to point out any logical flaws in my train of thought, I'm always interested in improving my communication skills. Sadly, I suspect that what you really mean is that you disagree with my argument -- which doesn't make something illogical.