This was the original statement I had a problem with, Gene:

>Wrong John.
>The odds on making a 2nd one is exactly the same >as the odds on the 1st one.

The a priori odds of making two in a row are not the same as making only the first one. You changed the statement when you responded to my post and said:

>I made the 1st one when the odds were 1:36,000 that I would make one.

>I played it off after they paid me.
>THEN
>I made a 2nd one in the next hand when the odds >were 1:36,000. that I would make one.

>Pretty simple math.

I agreed with that statement, but not that the odds of making two back-to-back are the same as making only one, which was I believe the original contention.