Are the casinos sending mixed signals about their property rights? Are they not engaging in selective enforcement of their property rights? And am I not spelling the word "our" as "or" in the previous message?

But let me ask this question. In principle, if all the chips in a given casino are the property of the casino and I take some of those chips, can I be accused of theft? And in follow up, if some of those chips are roulettes and some are regular chips vs. regular chips only, is the theft any degree greater?

Let me say that I firmly believe that what Gene had to say about the casino's enforcement method(s) is what would actually happen. At the same time I do not believe that those actions are consistent with due process. HOWEVER, I for one am NOT interested in being the test case to contest such an action!

Jim Follis