Gene -- I must be speaking with marbles in my mouth!! The probability of spinning any particular number on any one spin is truly 1 in 38; no argument there. But, the probability of spinning any PARTICULAR number twice in a row is 1 in 1444. Think of it this way: if I walk up to the table planning to win big by hitting the same number twice in a row but am willing to bet on only one number, when I put my money down for the first spin, I have 1 chance in 38 of winning. So, I will lose 37 times out of 38. The one time that I win and let the money ride, I will then have one chance in 38 of winning the BIG one. So, the overall probability of winning the big one is (1/38 x 1/38) = 1/1444! [The 37 times that I lost on the first spin, it doesn't matter what the second spin is, as I have already lost.

Do you doubt that the probability of rolling snake eyes in craps is 1 in 36? The mathematical principle is exactly the same. The result of each die is independent of the other -- each has a 1/6 chance of rolling a "1". But, the combined probability that BOTH will be one is 1/6 x 1/6 = 1/36. Same thing with the wheel -- the independent probability of spinning "1" on each spin is 1/38, but the combined probability of spinning "1" both times is 1/38 x 1/38 = 1/1444.

As for the other problem (i.e., imperfections in the wheel), that's another matter entirely. And I can see where that will work against the house if a sharp-eyed player picks up on the fact that the wheel is not producing a truly random result. You would have to watch the wheel for a LONG time, though, before any small mathematical anomaly became statistically significant.

Aren't there any other statistically minded people out there who can help me out here?? ----- jim o\-S